“such reverence for the actual words of Holy Writ was shown in those older
editions of the Bible…But ….we are not in the least concerned with a word-for-word version:…”
|click here-FREE to Download
Did God have a beginning?
The Ben Chayim Masoretic text (which
the O.T. of the King James Bible is translated from--see Old Testament facts on Bible Versions main page) is clear that
the Messiah would be Almighty God--the "I Am"--the one who had no beginning and no end--the one whose "goings forth"
have been from "everlasting".
The O.T. text (source material) consistently
chosen by the translators of most modern translators, on the other hand, claims that God (the Messiah) had a beginning (an
origin) in ancient times.
I ask you:
Is "goings forth" the same as "origins?"
Is "everlasting" synonomous with "ancient
The bottom line is--we must
make a choice concerning which source material is really the Word of God and which isn't...
The Majority or the Egyptian Minority text
Which is it?
The KJV Store
|Lots more on "Bible Versions"
Word For Word or Thought for Thought?
Should the scriptures be translated using a word for word method, or is it better (as some Johnny come lately’s claim) to
use a thought for thought method?
A word for word translation may call for a bit extra effort on our part in understanding the verse or passage,
but the thought for thought method puts us completely at the mercy of the interpretive slant of the translators.
Unfortunately, the thought for thought method of translation is used with most modern versions. Therefore, few,
if any, are true translations at all—but rather elaborate paraphrases masquerading as translations.
What do the scriptures themselves say about how the word of God should be handled?
Proverbs 30:5-6 says, “Every word of God is Pure...Add thou not unto his words...”
Revelation 22:19 says, “And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall
take away his part out of the book of life...”
2 Peter 1:20-21 says, “No
prophecy of scripture is of any private interpretation...”
We have three scriptures here that relate to the Word of God itself. One has a broad application and includes the
entirety of the scriptures. The others have a more limited scope and include only prophecies, but the message is clear…
The scriptures themselves place a prohibition on translation using any method other than word for word translation - anything else places the
translator in danger of adding to, or taking away from the word of God. Translators who violate this prohibition clearly have
no fear of God.
one version may unarguably translate a certain verse or passage more clearly than another version, and the King James Bible
does indeed contain some archaic words which make it somewhat more difficult to understand in places, the issue here is that
any version translated using any method besides the word for word method—regardless of how well it presents certain
portions of scripture—either adds to the word of God and/or takes away from it.
issued against this in the Bible are too severe to be ignored… if we value our souls. We need to be certain we are reading
a version that does neither of these things.
Click on Scripture reference below for a detailed look at changes (additions or deletions).
New Testament references will be listed first/then
O.T., but all references will be listed in the order of the books of the Bible.
Who Is The Creator?
For by him were all things created... all things were created by him... by him all things
The majority of existing manuscripts (Mss.) are very clear, and in agreement, that all
things were created by Jesus.
The Minority/Egyptian texts however, delete the word "by" (very critical) and substitute the words
in and for which cloud the issue entirely.
Being created by something, is not the same thing as being created in
or for something.
1 John 4:3
How Do We Identify a Spirit of Anti-christ?
1 John 4:3 is included in its entirety in the received text.
Every spirit that confesses not that Jesus Christ is come
in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of anti-christ, ...
(underlined portion of above scripture deleted by editors of
the minority/Egyptian texts most modern versions are taken from and by translators of the NIV-which is not a true translation
but rather a thought for thought paraphrase)
The specific purpose of 1 John 4:3 is to equip the believer to
be able to identify a spirit of anti-christ working through any person, doctrine or organization.
This verse is not dealing simply with the coming of Jesus Christ to this
earth as a man--but his death (as a man), his resurrection (as a man) and his perpetual (existence as a
The word translated "come" (in King James) indicates permanence/perpetuity.
It means he came, died, rose and continues forever to live
in the flesh.
The Minority Egyptian texts (which underlie the Hort-Westcott/Nestle-Aland
Greek) and today's #1 best selling Bible, not only delete the most important part of this verse, but by deleting
that they compound their sin by leaving a remnant of a verse which now says that any spirit which confesses that
Jesus does indeed come from God is anti-christ.
NIV: "...but every spirit that does not acknowledge
Jesus is not from God . This is the spirit of anti-christ.
My how Satan must love this verse which disarms the church (along with his elimination
of Matthew 17:21).
Proponents of the NIV (Nestle/Aland Text) may say that verse is simply saying
that in order for a spirit to be of God it must acknowledge Jesus--however, that is no test, for we are told in the
book of James that, "even the devils believe..."
All spirits (good and evil) acknowledge Jesus.
The question is, (answered in the Received Text--KJV translated from) exactly what fact are they acknowledging?