The Law came by Moses, but grace and TRUTH came by Jesus Christ (John 1:17).
Does that mean there was no TRUTH before Jesus came?
If that is what John 1:17 means, then we cannot believe the Law, Prophets and Psalms (like Psalm
43:3) which claimed TRUTH was available to mankind before the incarnation of Jesus Christ.
How do we "rightly divide" (rightly discern/have correct understanding of) John 1:17 according to the scripture
which admonishes us to do so (2 Timothy 2:15)?
Jesus himself blazed the trail for rightly dividing John 1:17 when he stated in John 5:39 that the scriptures
(Jesus' scriptures consisted only of the Old Testament which were written before his incarnation) spoke of him--in their
entirety.
The Law came by Moses....
Hebrews 10:1 tells us that the law was symbolic and representative of something. Jesus confirmed that what
the law prophetically foretold, and represented, was him (John 5:39)
Yes, Moses gave the law, and grace and TRUTH came by Jesus Christ. But the world did not have to wait
until only 2000 years ago to receive the TRUTH that came by Jesus Christ.
God made certain mankind could have that TRUTH from the very beginning (in the garden) when he prophesied
of the redeemer and taught the fallen couple how to worship him in a way that represented Jesus Christ (who is, and always
was, the only way, the only TRUTH, and the only life).
We are told to gird our loins with the TRUTH. Jesus is the TRUTH. The written
word of God is the TRUTH.
Any utterances that come from God will line up with the record we already have of TRUTH that
has already been written (Isaiah 8:20).
There has never been a time when God has not made TRUTH (Jesus Christ) available to man.
And never, at any point, has God ever contradicted what he had previously
commanded to be written.
